and this for two reasons. First because power has the nature of
principle, as is stated in _Metaph._ v, 12, whereas happiness has the
nature of last end. Secondly, because power has relation to good and
evil: whereas happiness is man's proper and perfect good. Wherefore
some happiness might consist in the good use of power, which is by
virtue, rather than in power itself.

Now four general reasons may be given to prove that happiness
consists in none of the foregoing external goods. First, because,
since happiness is man's supreme good, it is incompatible with any
evil. Now all the foregoing can be found both in good and in evil
men. Secondly, because, since it is the nature of happiness to
"satisfy of itself," as stated in _Ethic._ i, 7, having gained
happiness, man cannot lack any needful good. But after acquiring any
one of the foregoing, man may still lack many goods that are
necessary to him; for instance, wisdom, bodily health, and such like.
Thirdly, because, since happiness is the perfect good, no evil can
accrue to anyone therefrom. This cannot be said of the foregoing: for
it is written (Eccles. 5:12) that "riches" are sometimes "kept to the
hurt of the owner"; and the same may be said of the other three.
Fourthly, because man is ordained to happiness through principles
that are in him; since he is ordained thereto naturally. Now the four
goods mentioned above are due rather to external causes, and in most
cases to fortune; for which reason they are called goods of fortune.
Therefore it is evident that happiness nowise consists in the
foregoing.

Reply Obj. 1: God's power is His goodness: hence He cannot use His
power otherwise than well. But it is not so with men. Consequently it
is not enough for man's happiness, that he become like God in power,